SAT Chemistry Subject Test - Practice Test 1

SAT Chemistry Subject Test - Practice Test 1

Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, assume that the system is in water unless otherwise stated.
Reminder: You may not use a calculator on these tests.
The following symbols have the meanings listed unless otherwise noted.
H = enthalpy
M = molar
N = number of moles
P = pressure
R = molar gas constant
S = entropy
T = temperature
V = volume
atm = atmosphere
g = gram(s)
J = joules(s)
kj = kilojoules
L = liter(s)
mL = milliliter(s)
mm = millimeter(s)
mol = mole(s)
V = volt(s)
Directions: Every set of the given lettered choices below refers to the numbered statements or formulas immediately following it. Choose the one lettered choice that best fits each statement or formula and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 1-6:
refer to the choices in the following table:

1. The most electronegative element
2. The element with a possible oxidation number of -2
3. The element that would react in a 1:1 ratio with (D)
4. The element with the smallest ionic radius
5. The element with the smallest first ionization potential
6. The element with a complete p orbital as its outermost energy level

Questions 7-9:
refer to the following terms.
(A) Reduction potential
(B) Ionization energy
(C) Electronegativity
(D) Heat of formation
(E) Activation energy

7. This is the energy change that accompanies the combining of elements in their natural states to form one mole of a compound.

8. This is the energy needed to remove an electron from a gaseous atom in its ground state.

9. This is the minimum energy needed for molecules to react.

Questions 10-12:
refer to the following heating curve for water:

10. In which part of the curve is the state of H2O only a solid?

11. Which part of the graph shows a phase change requiring the greatest amount of energy?

12. Where is the temperature of H2O changing at 4.18 J/g°C (or 1 cal/g°C)?

Questions 13-15:
refer to the following diagram:
13. Indicates the activation energy of the forward reaction

14. Indicates the activation energy of the reverse reaction

15. Indicates the difference between the activation energies for the reverse and forward reactions and equals the energy change in the reaction

Questions 16-18:
refer to the following elements in the ground state:
(A) Fe
(B) Au
(C) Na
(D) Ar
(E) U

16. A common metal element that resists reaction with acids

17. A monatomic element that exists in the gaseous state at STP

18. A transition element described as having its inner 3d orbital partially filled

Questions 19 and 20:
refer to the following:
 (A) Radioactive isotope
(B) Monoclinic crystal
(C) Sulfur trioxide
(D) Sulfate salt
(E) Allotropic form

19. A substance that exhibits a resonance structure

20. A product formed from a base reacting with H2SO4.

Questions 21-23:
refer to the following terms:
(A) Dilute
(B) Concentrated
(C) Unsaturated
(D) Saturated
(E) Supersaturated

21. The condition, unrelated to quantities, that indicates that the rate going into solution is equal to the rate coming out of solution

22. The condition that exists when a water solution that has been at equilibrium and saturated is heated to a higher temperature with a higher solubility, but no additional solute is added

23. The descriptive term that indicates there is a large quantity of solute, compared with the amount of solvent, in a solution

Directions: Every question below contains two statements, I in the left-hand column and II in the right-hand column. For each question, decide if statement I is true or false and if statement II is true or false and fill in the corresponding T or F ovals on your answer sheet. *Fill in oval CE only if statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.
Sample Answer Grid:

Directions: Every question or incomplete statement below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Choose the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Question 24:
What is the approximate formula mass of Ca(NO3)2?
(A) 70
(B) 82
(C) 102
(D) 150
(E) 164

Question 25:
In the reaction 2KClO3 + MnO2 → 2KCl + 3O2 (g) + MnO2, which substance is the catalyst?
(A) O2
(B) KClO3
(C) MnO2
(D) KCl
(E) O2 in the MnO2

Question 26:
The normal configuration for ethyne (acetylene) is
(A) H—C=C—H
(B) H—C—C—H
(C) H—CH2—CH2—H
(D) H—C≡C—H

Question 27:
According to the Kinetic-Molecular Theory, molecules increase in kinetic energy when they
(A) are mixed with other molecules at lower temperature
(B) are frozen into a solid
(C) are condensed into a liquid
(D) are heated to a higher temperature
(E) collide with each other in a container at a lower temperature

Question 28:
How many atoms are represented in the formula Ca3(P04)2?
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 12
(E) 13

Question 29:
All of the following have covalent bonds EXCEPT
(A) HCl
(B) CCl4
(C) H2O
(D) CsF
(E) CO2

Question 30:
Which of the following is (are) the WEAKEST attractive force?
(A) Dipole-dipole forces
(B) Coordinate covalent bonding
(C) Covalent bonding
(D) Polar covalent bonding
(E) Ionic bonding '

Question 31:
Which of these resembles the molecular structure of the water molecule?

Question 32:
The two most important considerations in deciding whether a reaction will occur spontaneously are
(A) the stability and state of the reactants
(B) the energy gained and the heat evolved
(C) a negative value for ΔH and a positive value for ΔS
(D) a positive value for ΔH and a negative value for ΔS
(E) the endothermic energy and the structure of the products

Question 33:
The reaction of an acid such as HCl and a base such as NaOH always
(A) forms a precipitate
(B) forms a volatile product
(C) forms an insoluble salt and water
(D) forms a sulfate salt and water
(E) forms a salt and water

Question 34:
The oxidation number of sulfur in H2S04 is
(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) +4
(D) +6
(E) +8

Question 35:
Which of the substances in the following reaction is being reduced?
FeO + CO —> Fe + CO2
(A) Fe and C
(B) Fe
(C) CO2
(D) C
(E) CO

Question 36:
Which of the following when placed into water will test as an acid solution?
I. HCl(g) + H2O
II. Excess H3O+ + H2O
III. CuSO4(s) + H2O
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Question 37:
The property of matter that is independent of its surrounding conditions and position is
(A) volume
(B) density
(C) mass
(D) weight
(E) state

Question 38:
Where are the highest ionization energies found in the Periodic Table?
(A) Upper left corner
(B) Lower left corner
(C) Upper right corner
(D) Lower right corner
(E) Middle of transition elements

Question 39:
Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used to illustrate the Law of Multiple Proportions?

Question 40:
In this equilibrium reaction: A + B ⇌ AB + heat (in a closed container), how could the forward reaction rate be increased?
I. By increasing the concentration of AB
II. By increasing the concentration of A
III. By removing some of product AB
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only .
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Question 41:
For the reaction of sodium with water, the balanced equation using the smallest whole numbers has which of the following coefficients?
I. 1
II. 2
III. 3
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Question 42:
If 10 liters of CO gas react with sufficient oxygen for a complete reaction, how many liters of CO2 gas are formed?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 40

Question 43:
If 49 grams of H2SO4 react with 80.0 grams of  NaOH, how much reactant will be left over after the reaction is complete?
(A) 24.5 g H2SO4
(B) none of either compound
(C) 20. g NaOH
(D) 40. g NaOH
(E) 60. g NaOH

Question 44:
If the molar concentration of Ag+ ions in 1 liter of a saturated water solution of silver chloride is 1.4 × 10-5 mole/liter, what is the Ksp of silver chloride?

Question 45:
If the density of a diatomic gas at STP is
1. 43 grams/liter, what is the molar mass of the gas?
(A) 14.3 g
(B) 32.0 g
(C) 48.0 g
(D) 64.3 g
(E) 224 g

Question 46:
From 2 moles of KClO3 how many liters of O2 can be produced at STP by decomposition of all the KClO3?
(A) 11.2
(B) 22.4
(C) 33.6
(D) 44.8
(E) 67.2

Question 47:
Which value best determines whether a reaction is spontaneous?
(A) change in Gibbs free energy, ΔG
(B) change in entropy, ΔS
(C) change in kinetic energy, ΔKE
(D) change in enthalpy, ΔH
(E) change in potential energy, ΔPE

Silver oxide is placed into a crucible and heated strongly for 15 minutes over a flame. After cooling, the mass of the crucible and contents is deter¬mined. The whole system is heated strongly again for 5 minutes and cooled. Then the mass is measured again.
Recorded Data:
Mass of crucible = 14.03 g
Mass of crucible and silver oxide = 18.67 g
Mass of crucible and product = 18.36 g (after 1st heating)
Mass of crucible and product = 18.35 g (after 2nd heating)

Question 48:
The reaction that occurs by heating the silver oxide produces both silver metal and oxygen gas. The type of reaction that occurs is called
(A) neutralization
(B) combustion
(C) redox
(D) synthesis
(E) double replacement

Question 49:
The data from this experiment can be used
(A) to find the activity of silver in silver oxide
(B) to find the percent composition of silver oxide
(C) to verify the Law of Multiple Proportions
(D) to verify the Second Law of Thermodynamics
(E) to prove that silver is a malleable metal

Question 50:
The number of moles of oxygen released from the silver oxide after two rounds of heating is
(A) 0.020 mol
(B) 0.10 mol
(C) 0.32 mol
(D) 1.0 mol
(E) 3.2 mol

Question 51:
The purpose of the second heating is to
(A) ensure that all of the silver is removed from the crucible
(B) melt the silver
(C) ensure that all of the oxygen reacts with the silver
(D) ensure that all of the silver reacts with the oxygen in the air
(E) ensure that all of the oxygen is removed from the silver oxide

Question 52:
To prove that oxygen is a product in this reaction, which common laboratory test could be used?
(A) The “pop" test
(B) The “limewater” test
(C) The “cobalt chloride” test
(D) The “glowing splint” test
(E) The “oil drop” test

Question 53:
When HCl fumes and NH3 fumes are
introduced into opposite ends of a long, dry glass tube, a white ring forms in the tube. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
(A) NH4Cl forms.
(B) HCl diffuses faster.
(C) NH3 diffuses faster.
(D) The ring occurs closer to the end into which HCl was introduced.
(E) The ring occurs in the very middle of the tube.

Question 54:
The correct formula for calcium hydrogen sulfate is

Question 55:
Forty grams of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in enough water to make 1 liter of solution. What is the molarity of the solution?
(A) 0.25 M
(B) 0.5 M
(C) 1M
(D) 1.5 M
(E) 4 M

Question 56:
For a saturated solution of salt in water, which statement is true?
(A) All dissolving has stopped.
(B) Crystals begin to grow.
(C) An equilibrium has been established.
(D) Crystals of the solute will visibly continue to dissolve.
(E) The solute is exceeding its solubility.

Question 57:
In which of the following series is the pi bond present in the bonding structure?
I. Alkane
II. Alkene
III. Alkyne
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Questions 58 and 59:
refer to the following setup:
Why could you NOT use this setup for

Question 58:
preparing H2 if the generator contained Zn + vinegar?
(A) Hydrogen would not be produced.
(B) The setup of the generator is improper.
(C) The generator must be heated with a burner.
(D) The delivery tube setup is wrong.
(E) The gas cannot be collected over water.

Question 59:
In a proper laboratory setup for collecting a gas by water displacement, which of these gases could NOT be collected over H20 because of its solubility?
(A) CO2
(B) NO
(C) O2
(D) NH3
(E) CH4

Question 60:
What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in the formula mass of Ca(NO3)2?
(A) 28
(B) 42
(C) 58
(D) 68
(E) 84

Question 61:
For the following reaction:
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g),
the Keq expression is

Question 62:
What is the Keqfor the reaction in question 61 if at equilibrium the concentration of N2O4 is 4 × 10-2 mole/liter and that of  NO2 is 2 × 10-2 mole/liter?
(A) 1 × 10-2
(B) 2 × 10-2
(C) 4 × 10-2
(D) 4 × 10-4
(E) 8 × 10-2

Question 63:
How much water, in liters, must be added to
0. 50 liter of 6.0 M HCl to make the solution
2. M?
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.50
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.5
(E) 2.0

Question 64:
4.0 grams of hydrogen are ignited with 4.0 grams of oxygen. How many grams of water can be formed?
(A) 0.50
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.5
(D) 8.0
(E) 36

Question 65:
Which structure is an ester?
Question 66:
What piece of apparatus can be used to introduce more liquid into a reaction and also serve as a pressure valve?
(A) Stopcock
(B) Pinchcock
(C) Thistle tube
(D) Flask
(E) Condenser

Question 67:
Which formulas could represent the empirical formula and the molecular formula of a given compound?

Question 68:
The reaction
CH4 + O2 —> CO2 + H2O
could be classified as
I. Synthesis
II. Combustion
III. Redox
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) I and III
(D) II only
(E) II and III

Question 69:
2Na(s) + Cl2(g) -> 2NaCl(s) + 822 kj
How much heat is released by the above reaction if 0.5 mole of sodium reacts completely with chlorine?
(A) 205 kj
(B) 411 kj
(C) 822 kj
(D) 1,640 kj
(E) 3,290 kj

Practice Test 1

Answer 1:
(D) The most electronegative element, F, would be found in the upper right corner of the table; the noble gases are exceptions at the far right.

Answer 2:
(C) Elements in the group with (C) have a possible oxidation number of -2.

Answer 3:
(B) Elements in the group with (B) react in a 1:1 ratio with elements in the group with (D), since one has an electron to lose and the other one needs an electron to complete its outer energy level.

Answer 4:
(A) (A) loses 2 electrons to form an ion whose remaining electrons, being close to the nucleus, are pulled in closer than what occurs in (D) because of a greater number of protons.

Answer 5:
(B) Since (B) has only one electron in the outer 4s orbital, it can more easily be removed than can an electron from the 3s orbital of (A), which is closer to the positive nucleus.

Answer 6:
(E) All Group VIII elements have a complete p orbital as the outer energy level. This explains why these elements are “inert.”

Answer 7:
(D) The heat of formation is the energy change caused by the difference in the initial energy and final energy of the system when elements in their standard state react to form a compound.

Answer 8:
(B) The ionization energy is defined as the energy needed to remove an electron from the ground state of the isolated gaseous atom (or ion).

Answer 9:
(E) The activation energy is defined as the minimum energy required for molecules to react. This is true for both exothermic and endothermic reactions.

Answer 10:
(A) H20 is ice in Part A.

Answer 11:
(D) H20 changes state at Parts B and D. The heat of vaporization at D (540 cal/g or 2.26 × 103 J/g) is greater than the heat of fusion (80 cal/g or 3.34 × 102 J/g) at B.

Answer 12:
(C) Water is heating at l°C/cal/g or 4.18 J/g/l°C in Part C. This is liquid water’s specific heat.

Answer 13:
This is the energy needed to start the forward reaction.

Answer 14:
(B) The part indicated by B represents the activation energy for the reverse reaction.

Answer 15:
The net energy change is the endothermic quantity indicated by C.

Answer 16:
Gold is known as a common noble metal because of its resistance to acids. Aqua regia, a mixture of HNO3 and HCl, will react with gold. It is very low in the activity series.

Answer 17:
(D) Argon is the only element among the choices that is monoatomic in the ground state. It exists as individual atoms and is a gas at STP.

Answer 18:
(A) Iron has 5 electrons in the d orbitals, which are partially filled.

Answer 19:
(C) Only sulfur trioxide has a resonance structure (as shown here):

Answer 20:
(D) Sulfuric acid reacts with a base to form a sulfate salt.

Answer 21:
(D) The condition described is the equilibrium that exists at saturation.

Answer 22:
(C) With the increased temperature more solute may go into solution; therefore, the solution is now unsaturated.

Answer 23:
(B) The term “concentrated” means that there is a large amount of solute in the solvent.

Answer 101:
(T, T, CE) Nonmetallic oxides are usually acid anhydrides, and they form acids in water.

Answer 102:
(T, F) The white smoke formed is ammonium chloride, not ammonium chlorate.

Answer 103:
(F, T) The reaction of barium chloride and sodium sulfate does, essentially, go to completion since barium sulfate is a precipitate.

Answer 104:
(T, T, CE) The product of an exothermic reaction is relatively stable because it is at a lower energy level than the reactants.

Answer 105:
(T, T, CE) Both statements are true, and the reason explains the assertion.

Answer 106:
(T, T, CE) Both statements are true, and the reason explains the assertion.

Answer 107:
(F, T) The statement is false while the reason is true. Decreasing the pressure on a boiling pot will only cause the water to boil more vigorously.

Answer 108:
(T, T) The statements are true, but the reason doesn’t explain the assertion.

Answer 109:
(T, T) The statements are true, but the reason doesn’t explain the assertion.

Answer 110:
(T, F) The mass of the proton and the neutron are both 1.7 × 10-24 g. The charge on a proton, however, is positive while the charge on a neutron is neutral.

Answer 111:
(T, T, CE) The two configurations of carbon are isotopes because they have the same atomic number but different mass numbers because 13C6 has 6 protons and 7 neutrons while 14C6 has 6 protons and 8 neutrons.

Answer 112:
(F, F) Both the statement and the reason are false.

Answer 113:
(T, T, CE)
In going from 100°C to 0°C, the volume decreases as the gas gets colder; therefore, the temperature fraction expressed in kelvins must be 273/373 to decrease the volume. To go from 600 mm to 760 mm of pressure increases the pressure, thus causing the gas to contract. The fraction must then be 600/700 to cause the volume to decrease. You could use the formula

Answer 114:
(T, T)
Since HCl is a strong acid and ionizes completely in dilute solution of water (the [H+] and [H3O+] are the same thing), the molar concentration of a 0.01 molar solution is 1 × 10-2 mol/L.
pH = -log[H+]
pH = -log[1 × 10-2 ]
pH = -(-2) = 2
The pH is 2, but the reason, although true, does not explain the statement.

Answer 115:
(T, T, CE) Both statements are true, and the reason explains the assertion.

Answer 116:
(T, T) The water molecule is polar because its molecular structure has the more elec-tronegative oxygen molecule at the one end and the two hydrogen molecules 105° apart. This causes the oxygen end to be more negatively charged than the hydrogen side of the molecule. The radius of the oxygen atom is greater than that of a hydrogen atom, but that has nothing to do with the polar nature of the water molecule.

Answer 24:
The total formula mass is:
Ca = 40
2N = 28
60 = 96
Total 164

Answer 25:
(C) The catalyst, by definition, is not consumed in the reaction and ends up in its original form as one of the products. In this reaction, the catalyst is the Mn02.

Answer 26:
(D) The ethyne molecule is the first member of the alkyne series with a general formula of CnH2n-2. It contains a triple bond between the two C atoms: H—C≡C—H.

Answer 27:
(D) Heating molecules increases their kinetic energy.
Answer 28:
(E) 3Ca + 2P + 80 = 13 atoms.

Answer 29:
Cesium and fluorine are from the most electropositive and electronegative por-tions, respectively, of the periodic chart, and thus form an ionic bond by cesium giving an electron to fluorine to form the respective ions.

Answer 30:
(A) Dipole-dipole forces are due to the weak attraction between permanently polar molecules. They are much weaker than the others named.

Answer 31:
The molecular structure of water is that of a polar covalent compound with the hydrogens 105° apart.

Answer 32:
The most important considerations for a spontaneous reaction are (1) that the reaction is exothermic with a negative ΔH, so that once started it tends to continue on its own because of the energy released, and (2) that the reaction tends to go to the highest state of randomness, shown by a positive value for ΔS.

Answer 33:
Normal H+ acids and OH- bases form water and a salt (not necessarily a soluble salt).

Answer 34:
Every compound has a charge of 0. H usually has +1, and O usually has -2, so

Answer 35:
Iron’s oxidation state is changing from +2 to 0. It is the substance being reduced.

Answer 36:
HCl and H3O+ give acid solutions, as does CuSO4 (the salt of a weak base and a strong acid) when it hydrolyzes in water. I, II, and III are correct.

Answer 37:
Mass is a constant and is not dependent on position or surrounding conditions.

Answer 38:
(C) The complete outer energy levels of electrons of the smallest noble gases have the highest ionization potential.

Answer 39:
Only NO and NO2 fit the definition of the Law of Multiple Proportions, in which one substance stays the same and the other varies in units of whole integers.

Answer 40:
Increasing the concentration of one or both of the reactants and removing some of the product formed would cause the forward reaction to increase in rate to try to regain the equilibrium condition. II and III are correct.

Answer 41:
(C) I and II are correct. The equation is 2Na + 2H2O -> 2NaOH + H2(g). The coefficients include a 1 and a 2.

Answer 42:
(B) 2CO + O2 -> 2CO2 indicates 2 volumes of CO react with 1 volume of O2 to form 2 volumes of CO2. Therefore, 10 L of CO form 10 L of CO2.

Answer 43:
H2SO4 + 2NaOH -> 2H2O + Na2SO4 is the equation for this reaction. 1 mol H2SO4 = 98 g. 1 mol NaOH = 40 g. Then 49 g of H2SO4 = 1/2 mol H2SO4. The equation shows that 1 mol of H2SO4 reacts with 2 mol of NaOH for a ratio of 1:2. Therefore,  1/2 mol of H2SO4 reacts with 1 mol of NaOH in this reaction. Since 1 mol of NaOH equals 40. g, and 80. g of NaOH is given, 40. g of it will remain after the reaction has gone to completion.

Answer 44:


Answer 45:
If 1.43 g is the mass of 1 L, then the mass of 22.4 L, which is the molar volume of a gas at STP, will give the molar mass. Then,22.4L/mol x 1.43 g/L = 32.0 g, the molar mass.

Answer 46:
The equation is:
2KClO3(S) -> 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
This shows that 2 mol of KClO3 yields 3 mol of O2. Three moles of O2 = 3 x 22.4 L = 67.2 L of O2.

Answer 47:
Gibbs free energy combines the overall energy changes and the entropy change. The formula is ΔG = ΔH- TΔS. Only if ΔG is negative will the reaction be spontaneous in the forward direction.

Answer 48:
When silver oxide decomposes, the oxidation states of the silver and the oxygen change from +1 to 0 and from -2 to 0, respectively. Therefore, the decomposition of silver oxide is a redox reaction.

Answer 49:
Since the mass of the silver oxide (4.64 g), the mass of the oxygen released upon heating (0.32 g), and the mass of the silver remaining in the crucible (4.32 g) can all be calculated, the percent composition of the silver oxide can be found. In other words, (0.32 g/4.64 g) × 100% = 6.9% oxygen in silver oxide. Similarly, (4.32 g/4.64 g) × 100% = 93.1% silver in silver oxide.

Answer 50:
The mass of oxygen released from the silver oxide can be converted into moles by using dimensional analysis.
Because the numbers in the problem are easily relatable to each other, this problem could be solved without a calculator!

Answer 51:
The purpose of the second heating is to ensure that all of the oxygen is removed from the silver oxide. Since the mass after the second heating is only 0.01 g different from that of the first heating, the experimenter could feel confident that all of the oxygen has been practically removed because the difference is so small.

Answer 52:
A splint of wood with an ember placed into a container where oxygen may have been produced offers evidence of the production of oxygen if the splint starts burning. This is called the “glowing splint” test.

Answer 53:
The phenomenon is the formation of the white ring, which is NH4Cl. Although the distance traveled by each gas could be measured to verify Graham’s Law of Gaseous Diffusion, this was not asked. The relationship is that the diffusion rate is inversely proportional to the square root of the gas’s molar mass.

Answer 54:
(C) Since Ca2+ and HSO4- combine, the formula is Ca(HSO4)2.

Answer 55:
(C) NaOH is 40 g/mol. 40 g in 1 L makes a 1 M solution.

Answer 56:
(C) A saturated solution represents a condition where the solute is going into solution as rapidly as some solute is coming out of the solution.

Answer 57:
(D) II and III are correct since the double-bonded carbons in the alkene and the triple bonded carbons in the alkyne series have pi bonds.

Answer 58:
(B) The thistle tube is not below the level of the liquid in the generator and the gas would escape into the air. (Vinegar is an acid and would produce hydrogen.)

Answer 59:
(D) NH3 is very soluble and could not be collected in this manner. All others are not sufficiently soluble to hamper this method of collection.

Answer 60:
(C) The formula (mass) is the total of (Ca =) 40 + (2N =) 28 + (60 =) 96, or 164. Since oxygen is 96 amu of 164 total, the percentage is 96/164 × 100 = 58.5%.

Answer 61:
(D) The Keq expression consists of the concentration(s) of the products over those of the reactants, with the coefficients becoming exponents:

Answer 62: (A)

Answer 63:
In dilution problems, the expressions M× V1 = M2 × V2 can be used. Substituting (6.0 M) (0.50 L) = (2.0 M) (x L) gives x = 1.5 L total volume. Since there was 0.50 L to begin with, an additional 1L must be added.

Answer 64:
(C) The reaction equation and information given can be set up like this:
Answer 65:
(E) The functional group of an ester is

Answer 66:
(C) The thistle tube serves both these purposes.

Answer 67:
(D) The empirical formula is a representation of the elements in their simplest ratio. Therefore, CH2 is the simplest ratio of the molecular formula C3H6.

Answer 68:
Synthesis reactions contain only one product. This reaction contains two products. Therefore, it can’t be described as a synthesis reaction. It is, however, both combustion and redox. All combustion reactions are redox reactions because the elemental oxygen (with an oxidation state of 0) will enter into compounds and change its oxidation state.

Answer 69:
In the equation, 2 mol of Na release 822 kj of heat. If only 0.5 mol of Na is consumed, only one-fourth as much heat will be released: 1/4 × 822 = 205k.
Your score on practice Test 1 can now be computed manually. The actual test is scored by i machine, but the same method is used to arrive at the raw score. You get one point for each correct answer. For each wrong answer, you lose one-fourth of a point. Questions that you k omit or that have more than one answer are not counted. On your answer sheet mark all correct answers with a “C” and all incorrect answers with an “X.”
Determining Your Raw Test Score
Total the number of correct answers you have recorded on your answer sheet. It should be the same as the total of all the numbers you place in the block in the lower left corner of each area of the Subject Area summary in the next section.
A. Enter the total number of correct answers here: ________
Now count the number of wrong answers you recorded on your answer sheet.
B. Enter the total number of wrong answers here: _________
Multiply the number of wrong answers in B by 0.25.
C. Enter that product here: _________
Subtract the result in C from the total number of right answers in A.
D. Enter the result of your subtraction here: _________
E. Round the result in D to the nearest whole number: _________.
This is your raw test score.
Conversion of Raw Scores to Scaled Scores
Your raw score is converted by the College Board into a scaled score. The College Board scores
range from 200 to 800. This conversion is done to ensure that a score earned on any edition I of a particular SAT Subject Test in Chemistry is comparable to the same scaled score earned on any other edition of the same test. Because some editions of the tests may be slightly easier or more difficult than others, scaled scores are adjusted so that they indicate the same level of performance regardless of the edition of the test taken and the ability of the group that
takes it. Consequently, a specific raw score on one edition of a particular test will not necessarily translate to the same scaled score on another edition of the same test.
Because the practice tests in this book have no large population of scores with which they can be scaled, scaled scores cannot be determined.
Results from previous SAT Chemistry tests appear to indicate that the conversion of raw
scores to scaled scores GENERALLY follows this pattern:
Note that this scale provides only a general idea of what a raw score may translate into on a scaled score range of 800-200. Scaling on every test is usually slightly different. Some students who had taken the SAT Subject Test in Chemistry after using this book had reported that they have scored slightly higher on the SAT test than on the practice tests in this book. They all reported that preparing well for the test paid off in a better score!
After taking Practice Test 1, check your answers against the correct ones. Then fill in the chart below.
In the space under each question number, place a check if you answered that question correctly.
If your answer to question 5 was correct, place a check in the appropriate box.
Next, total the check marks for each section and insert the number in the designated block. Now do the arithmetic indicated, and insert your percent for each area.


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